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spoiled
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 how do you prove the following identity?
parbatya
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1. Given,  1- (1- cos2T     =  sin2T +1
                           tan2t

        1-     (sin 2 T)               = sin2T + 1
                  sin2T/cos2T

         1-cos 2T  = 1+ sin2T

-Cos2T = sin2T (this is not identical)

2. So square both sides : Cos4T = Sin4T

3 . Cos4T - Sin4T =0

4. (cos2T-sin2T) (cos22T+sin2T)=0

5. That gives you value of Theta as 45 degree. Am I right?

Where T=Theta.

Last edited: 17-Apr-08 08:16 PM
parbatya
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Do yo want to solve or prove????
Lati_ko_Poi
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I think the identity is wrong. it should be like this

(1-(1-cos2 Theta)/tan2Theta)=sin2Theta

Lati_ko_Poi
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If u r trying to find the value of theta, no theta satisfies the above eqn. (except some complex angle..not sure if it does).

Parbatya is wrong, put 45 back to the equation, u will be ended up with 0.5=1.5

parbatya
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Actually this is not 'identity'. They can not be solved in straight way but they have solution as I found there.

 

BTW I am not mathematician.

Last edited: 17-Apr-08 08:02 PM
Lati_ko_Poi
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Identity means despite the value of theta, the expression is correct
jptsamachar
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laaaaaaaaaaaaamo jasto..namilney identity raakhney ko ho yo?????????
भउते
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LHS = 1- (1- cos2T) 
                     tan2t

        = 1-     (sin 2 T)               ------->>> 1-cos2T = sin2T  &   tan 2T = sin2T/cos2T
                    sin2T/cos2T

        = 1-cos 2T

        = sin 2 T------->>> 1-cos2T = sin2T

Therefore, RHS suppose to be----->>  sin 2 T  !!  ?????  

Did I get it right !  WOW !  I better participate on the TV show " Are You Smarter Than a 5th Grader?". LOL ! :D :D :p

Last edited: 17-Apr-08 08:11 PM
भउते
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मिलेन मिलेन पर्बतेदा'। त्यो जहाँ पायो त्यैँ दुइतिरै स्क्वाएर घुसाउन मिल्ने भा' भे' त १ बराबर २ देखाउन नि सकिन्छ।

GP
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Here is simple solution: since theta is angle, I am not writing it at the very end. You may assume it.

1 = sin^2 + cost^2,

1/tan^2 = cos^2 / sin^2

1- cos^2 = sin^2

Use these expressions:

sin^2 + cos^2 + (1-cos^2)/tan^2 = 1 + sin^2

Cancel out common parts:

cos^2 - sin^2 * cos^2  / sin^2 = 1

cos^2 - cos^2 = 1

-cos^2 A = sin^2 A

Since there is -ve sign , and SinA and cosA are both squared term, it does not have real solution. It is April Fool problem.

sabaiko satru
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Last edited: 18-Apr-08 11:29 AM
sabaiko satru
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or u can bring that sin^2 on LHS and solve to prove    LHS=RHS
भउते
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1- 1- (sin 2 T)             =   1-cos2 T   कसरी हुन्छ?
      sin2T/cos2T

1- 1- (sin 2 T)              
       sin2T/cos2T

‍= 1-1-cos2T

= cos2T  भएन र भन्या?

अनि सुरु देखि नै त्यो 1-1 किन बोकेर हिडि राखेको? त्यो त त्यसै 0 हुनुपर्ने।

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