ok i was about to go to bed, but TT stopped me...damn you!....."guru" of sajha hehehahahahahahaha let me tell you one thing. i enjoy reading your posts. i find them very very interesting. i like people who think themselves "smarta$$es". and u being the mahabharat's "samaya-the time", i have to droop my head in front of ya. there is no way out. i adore u. i envy u ...u r the mann!!!. your long posts full of comedy and bs imaginations are worth reading. at least for me....hehehahahahaha ok enough of bs. let me get back to the mathematics....hmm.... see , i know exponential is an inverse function of logarithm. i know that, so technically i cannot assume it. I TOLD IT 10 times in this thread and i m repeating 11th time, for the sake of u, there are various methods from which the problem can be proved. 1) i m not resorting to the graphical and analytical approach here, coz it will blow out of Pat's mind if not yours. PAT IS A NEWBIE IN CALCULUS, so spare some mercy on him. 2) My very first post tells that an exponential function can be interpreted in terms of trigonometric functions and we can solve it through that track. he did not BOTHER to give it a shot. 3) i used logarithmic function as the "given assumed one" in the proof. what's wrong with it. if i follow the classical method then i have to interpret e^x in terms of binomial expansion. but all those expressions except the first term will be FUNCTION OF X AGAIN. so i cannot get rid of DEPENDENCY. TELL ME ONE DAMN FUNCTION OF X WHOSE EXPRESSION IS FREE FROM 'X, THEN I AM GONNA TALK WITH YOU'---> that's assignment-I for ya... Loote P.S. YOU SAID: hehehe asn an engieneer u don;t need to care abt that crap.....duct-tape is good enuff, eh? ===== where is the coming from? YOU ARE FORTH PERSON HERE IN SAJHA, WHO JUDGE PEOPLE BY THEIR NICK.